AQA A-level Psychology · 4.2.3

Research methods

50 exam-style questions with answers for 4.2.3 Research methods in AQA A-level Psychology (spec 7182). Practise with flashcards, a topic quiz, a random quiz across the course, 5 crosswords, or read every question and answer below. Not official AQA material.

All 50 questions and answers

  1. Question 1 · Spec 4.2.3 · Experimental method

    Distinguish between a laboratory experiment and a field experiment. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    A laboratory experiment takes place in a controlled environment where the researcher manipulates the IV and controls extraneous variables (1); a field experiment also manipulates the IV, but takes place in a natural, everyday setting (1).
  2. Question 2 · Spec 4.2.3 · Experimental method

    Explain one strength and one limitation of laboratory experiments. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Strength: high control over extraneous variables, so cause and effect can be established and the study replicated (1); limitation: an artificial setting may lack ecological validity and produce demand characteristics (1).
  3. Question 3 · Spec 4.2.3 · Experimental method

    Distinguish between a natural experiment and a quasi-experiment. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    In a natural experiment the IV varies naturally and is not manipulated by the researcher, e.g. the effect of a natural disaster (1); in a quasi-experiment the IV is a pre-existing difference between people, e.g. gender or age (1).
  4. Question 4 · Spec 4.2.3 · Observational techniques

    Distinguish between naturalistic and controlled observation. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Naturalistic observation takes place where the target behaviour would normally occur, with no interference (1); controlled observation takes place in a structured environment where some variables are managed (1).
  5. Question 5 · Spec 4.2.3 · Observational techniques

    Distinguish between covert and overt observation, and give one issue with each. [4 marks]

    Answer:
    Covert: participants are unaware they are being observed (1); this reduces demand characteristics but raises ethical issues of consent (1); overt: participants know they are being observed (1); this is more ethical but behaviour may change due to awareness of being watched (1).
  6. Question 6 · Spec 4.2.3 · Observational techniques

    Explain one strength and one limitation of participant observation. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Strength: the researcher gains insight into participants' lives, increasing validity (1); limitation: the researcher may 'go native' and lose objectivity (1).
  7. Question 7 · Spec 4.2.3 · Self-report techniques

    Distinguish between structured and unstructured interviews. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Structured interviews use a list of predetermined questions asked in a fixed order (1); unstructured interviews are more like a conversation, with no set questions, and the interviewee is encouraged to expand on answers (1).
  8. Question 8 · Spec 4.2.3 · Self-report techniques

    Explain one strength and one limitation of questionnaires. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Strength: they are cost-effective and can gather large amounts of data quickly, and participants may be more willing to reveal personal information than in an interview (1); limitation: responses may be affected by social desirability bias or response bias, e.g. acquiescence (1).
  9. Question 9 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Questionnaire construction

    Distinguish between open and closed questions. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Open questions have no fixed range of answers, so produce qualitative data that are rich in detail (1); closed questions have a fixed number of possible responses, so produce quantitative data that are easy to analyse (1).
  10. Question 10 · Spec 4.2.3 · Correlations

    Explain the difference between a correlation and an experiment. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    In an experiment, the researcher manipulates the IV and measures the effect on the DV, so cause and effect can be inferred (1); in a correlation, there is no manipulation of variables; the researcher measures the relationship between two co-variables, so cause and effect cannot be established (1).
  11. Question 11 · Spec 4.2.3 · Content analysis

    Outline content analysis as a research method. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    An indirect observation of people through artefacts they have produced, e.g. TV adverts, diaries or books (1); the researcher decides on coding units/behavioural categories and counts how many times each occurs (quantitative) (1); or uses thematic analysis to identify recurring themes (qualitative) (1).
  12. Question 12 · Spec 4.2.3 · Case studies

    Explain one strength and one limitation of case studies. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Strength: they give rich, detailed insights and can study unusual behaviour, e.g. HM (1); limitation: findings are based on a small sample or a single person, so cannot be generalised (1).
  13. Question 13 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Aims and hypotheses

    Explain the difference between an aim and a hypothesis. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    An aim is a general statement of what the researcher intends to investigate (1); a hypothesis is a clear, precise, testable statement of the relationship between variables (1).
  14. Question 14 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Aims and hypotheses

    Explain the difference between a directional and a non-directional hypothesis. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    A directional hypothesis states the direction of the difference or relationship, e.g. 'more' or 'less' (1); a non-directional hypothesis states that there will be a difference or relationship but not its direction (1).
  15. Question 15 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Aims and hypotheses

    A researcher wants to test whether listening to music affects recall of a word list. Write a non-directional hypothesis. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    There will be a difference in the number of words recalled from a list of 20 (1); between participants who listen to music while learning and those who learn in silence (1).
  16. Question 16 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Sampling

    Explain the difference between a population and a sample. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    A population is the group of people the researcher is interested in and wants to generalise to (1); a sample is a smaller group drawn from the population that is actually studied (1).
  17. Question 17 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Sampling

    Outline random and systematic sampling. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Random sampling: every member of the target population has an equal chance of being selected, e.g. names drawn from a hat or random number generator (1); systematic sampling: every nth member of the target population is selected from a sampling frame (1).
  18. Question 18 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Sampling

    Outline stratified sampling and explain one strength of it. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    The sample reflects the proportions of people in certain subgroups (strata) within the population (1); participants are randomly selected from each stratum in proportion (1); strength: the sample is representative, so findings can be generalised (1).
  19. Question 19 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Sampling

    Outline opportunity and volunteer sampling and give one limitation of each. [4 marks]

    Answer:
    Opportunity sampling: selecting whoever is available and willing at the time (1); limitation: it is unrepresentative and researcher bias may influence selection (1); volunteer sampling: participants select themselves, e.g. by replying to an advert (1); limitation: volunteer bias, as volunteers may be more motivated or curious, so the sample is not representative (1).
  20. Question 20 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Pilot studies

    Explain the aims of a pilot study. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    A small-scale trial run of the investigation before the main study (1); to check procedures, materials and instructions work, so problems can be corrected, saving time and money (1).
  21. Question 21 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Experimental designs

    Outline the repeated measures design and give one limitation of it. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    All participants take part in all conditions of the experiment (1); limitation: order effects, e.g. practice or fatigue, may affect performance in the second condition (1).
  22. Question 22 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Experimental designs

    Outline the independent groups design and give one limitation of it. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Participants are allocated to different groups, each group doing one condition (1); limitation: participant variables differ between groups, which may act as confounding variables (1).
  23. Question 23 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Experimental designs

    Outline the matched pairs design. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Pairs of participants are matched on a variable that may affect the DV, e.g. IQ (1); one member of each pair does condition A and the other condition B (1).
  24. Question 24 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Observational design

    Explain the difference between event sampling and time sampling. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Event sampling: a target behaviour is counted every time it occurs (1); time sampling: behaviour is recorded at fixed time intervals, e.g. every 30 seconds (1).
  25. Question 25 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Observational design

    Explain what is meant by behavioural categories and why they should be operationalised. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Breaking the target behaviour into components that are observable and measurable, e.g. 'aggression' into hitting, pushing, kicking (1); clear categories make data collection more objective and increase inter-observer reliability (1).
  26. Question 26 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Variables

    Define operationalisation. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Clearly defining variables in terms of how they can be measured (1); e.g. 'memory' as the number of words correctly recalled from a list of 20 (1).
  27. Question 27 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Variables

    Explain the difference between an extraneous and a confounding variable. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    An extraneous variable is any variable other than the IV that may affect the DV if not controlled, e.g. noise (1); a confounding variable varies systematically with the IV, so it is impossible to know whether changes in the DV are due to the IV or the confounding variable (1).
  28. Question 28 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Control

    Explain how counterbalancing reduces order effects. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Half the participants do condition A then B, and the other half do B then A (ABBA) (1); so order effects are balanced out across conditions (1).
  29. Question 29 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Control

    Explain the difference between randomisation and standardisation. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Randomisation: using chance methods to control the effects of bias when designing materials or deciding the order of conditions (1); standardisation: all participants are subject to the same environment, information and experience, e.g. standardised instructions (1).
  30. Question 30 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Demand characteristics

    Explain what is meant by demand characteristics and investigator effects. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Demand characteristics: cues that reveal the aim of the study, so participants change their behaviour, e.g. to please the researcher (1); investigator effects: any unwanted influence of the investigator on the DV, e.g. through their expectations or behaviour (1).
  31. Question 31 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Ethics

    Outline three ethical issues identified in the BPS code of ethics. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Informed consent: participants should be made aware of the aims, procedures and their rights before agreeing to take part (1); deception: misleading participants or withholding information (1); protection from harm: participants should not be placed at more risk than in everyday life, and have the right to withdraw and to confidentiality (1).
  32. Question 32 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Ethics

    Explain two ways of dealing with deception in research. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Debriefing participants at the end, telling them the true aims and giving them the right to withhold their data (1); prior general consent or retrospective consent (1).
  33. Question 33 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Peer review

    Outline the role of peer review in the scientific process. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Before publication, research is scrutinised by independent experts in the same field (1); to check its validity, originality and significance (1); it helps allocate research funding, prevents incorrect or fraudulent research being published, and can suggest amendments (1).
  34. Question 34 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Implications for the economy

    Explain one way psychological research has implications for the economy. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Research on the role of the father shows both parents can be effective caregivers, so parents can share childcare and return to work flexibly (1); and effective treatments for mental illness, e.g. CBT, mean people can return to work, reducing absence costs (1).
  35. Question 35 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Reliability

    Explain how test-retest and inter-observer reliability are assessed. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Test-retest: the same test is given to the same people on different occasions (1); inter-observer: two or more observers record the same behaviour independently (1); in both, the scores are correlated, and a correlation of +0.80 or above suggests good reliability (1).
  36. Question 36 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Validity

    Distinguish between face validity and concurrent validity. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Face validity: whether a test appears to measure what it claims to, assessed by 'eyeballing' or by an expert (1); concurrent validity: whether results are close to those of a well-established test of the same thing, shown by a correlation above +0.80 (1).
  37. Question 37 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Validity

    Distinguish between ecological validity and temporal validity. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Ecological validity: the extent to which findings can be generalised from one setting to others, especially everyday life (1); temporal validity: the extent to which findings can be generalised to other historical times (1).
  38. Question 38 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Features of science

    Outline the features of science: objectivity, replicability and falsifiability. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Objectivity: researchers keep a critical distance and do not let personal opinions influence the data, e.g. using controlled methods (1); replicability: the extent to which procedures can be repeated to check findings are valid (1); falsifiability: Popper argued scientific theories must be capable of being proven false (1).
  39. Question 39 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Features of science

    Explain what Kuhn meant by a paradigm and a paradigm shift. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    A paradigm is a set of shared assumptions and agreed methods within a scientific discipline (1); a paradigm shift is when the dominant theory is overturned because of contradictory evidence (1).
  40. Question 40 · Spec 4.2.3.1 · Reporting investigations

    Outline the abstract, method and discussion sections of a scientific report. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Abstract: a short summary of the aims, hypotheses, method, results and conclusions (1); method: a detailed description of the design, sample, materials and procedure so the study can be replicated (1); discussion: a summary of the results in relation to background research, limitations and implications (1).
  41. Question 41 · Spec 4.2.3.2 · Types of data

    Explain the difference between primary and secondary data, including meta-analysis. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Primary data is original data collected specifically for the investigation by the researcher (1); secondary data has already been collected by someone else, e.g. government statistics (1); a meta-analysis combines the findings of many studies on a topic to produce an overall effect size (1).
  42. Question 42 · Spec 4.2.3.2 · Descriptive statistics

    Calculate the mean, median and mode of these scores: 4, 6, 6, 7, 9, 10, 14. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Mean: 56 ÷ 7 = 8 (1); median: 7 (1); mode: 6 (1).
  43. Question 43 · Spec 4.2.3.2 · Descriptive statistics

    Explain why the standard deviation is a more informative measure of dispersion than the range. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    The range only uses the highest and lowest scores, so it is easily distorted by extreme values (1); the standard deviation takes all the scores into account, showing how much scores deviate from the mean (1).
  44. Question 44 · Spec 4.2.3.2 · Descriptive statistics

    In a study, 18 out of 24 participants conformed. What percentage conformed? Show your working. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    18 ÷ 24 = 0.75 (1); 0.75 × 100 = 75% (1).
  45. Question 45 · Spec 4.2.3.2 · Distributions

    Describe the relationship between the mean, median and mode in a positively skewed distribution. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Most scores are bunched towards the left, with a long tail to the right (1); the mode is lowest, followed by the median, with the mean highest (pulled towards the tail) (1).
  46. Question 46 · Spec 4.2.3.2 · Correlation

    What does a correlation coefficient of −0.85 show? [2 marks]

    Answer:
    A strong (1); negative correlation, where as one co-variable increases the other decreases (1).
  47. Question 47 · Spec 4.2.3.2 · Levels of measurement

    Outline nominal, ordinal and interval levels of measurement. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Nominal: data in separate categories, e.g. counting how many people choose each option (1); ordinal: data that are ordered, e.g. ratings on a scale, but intervals are not equal (1); interval: data measured on a scale with equal, precisely defined units, e.g. time or temperature (1).
  48. Question 48 · Spec 4.2.3.3 · Sign test

    In a repeated measures study, 12 participants were tested. 9 improved, 2 got worse and 1 showed no change. Calculate S and state whether the result is significant if the critical value is 1. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    The participant with no change is removed, so N = 11 (1); S is the less frequent sign, so S = 2 (1); S must be equal to or less than the critical value to be significant, so 2 > 1 means the result is not significant (1).
  49. Question 49 · Spec 4.2.3.3 · Probability

    Explain the difference between a Type I and a Type II error. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Type I error: the null hypothesis is rejected and the alternative accepted when the null is true, a false positive, more likely with a lenient significance level such as 10% (1); Type II error: the null hypothesis is accepted when the alternative is true, a false negative, more likely with a stringent level such as 1% (1).
  50. Question 50 · Spec 4.2.3.3 · Choosing a test

    A researcher uses an independent groups design and collects ordinal data. Which statistical test should be used? Explain your choice. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Mann-Whitney test (1); because it is a test of difference with an unrelated (independent groups) design (1); and the data are ordinal (1).

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