AQA A-level Environmental Science · 3.4

Pollution

50 exam-style questions with answers for 3.4 Pollution in AQA A-level Environmental Science (spec 7447). Practise with flashcards, a topic quiz, a random quiz across the course, 5 crosswords, Five Degrees, Associations, or read every question and answer below. Not official AQA material.

All 50 questions and answers

  1. Question 1

    Distinguish between bioaccumulation and biomagnification. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Bioaccumulation is the build-up of a substance in one organism as it is absorbed faster than it is excreted. Biomagnification is the rise in concentration up a food chain.
  2. Question 2

    Explain how a temperature inversion causes smog. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    A layer of cold dense air is trapped under warmer air. Pollutants cannot rise and disperse, so concentrations build up, especially in valleys with low wind.
  3. Question 3

    State what ALARA means. [1 mark]

    Answer:
    As Low As Reasonably Achievable: exposure to ionising radiation is kept as low as possible where the benefits outweigh the risks.
  4. Question 4

    Distinguish between a primary and a secondary pollutant. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    A primary pollutant is released directly. A secondary pollutant forms from reactions of primary pollutants, such as ozone or PANs.
  5. Question 5

    Explain how acid rain forms. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Burning fossil fuels releases sulfur dioxide and NOx, which dissolve in water to form sulfurous, sulfuric and nitric acids.
  6. Question 6

    Describe how flue gas desulfurisation (FGD) works. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    SO2 reacts with calcium carbonate (dry) or dissolves in a sulfite solution (wet), forming solid calcium sulfate.
  7. Question 7

    Explain how catalytic converters reduce pollution. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Catalysts reduce NOx to nitrogen and oxygen, and oxidise CO and hydrocarbons to CO2 and water.
  8. Question 8

    Explain how eutrophication occurs. [4 marks]

    Answer:
    Nitrates and phosphates cause algal blooms that shade submerged plants. Plants and algae die, bacteria decompose them using oxygen, and deoxygenation kills fish.
  9. Question 9

    State two health effects of nitrates in drinking water. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Blue baby syndrome (methaemoglobinaemia) and a possible link to stomach cancer.
  10. Question 10

    Describe the stages of sewage treatment. [4 marks]

    Answer:
    Pre-treatment screens and grit traps, primary sedimentation, secondary aerobic decomposition (activated sludge or filter beds), then tertiary phosphate removal and UV or microfiltration.
  11. Question 11

    State what the decibel scale shows. [1 mark]

    Answer:
    Sound intensity on a logarithmic scale, so a 10 dB rise is a ten-fold increase.
  12. Question 12

    Explain why DDT causes environmental problems. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    It is persistent and liposoluble, so it bioaccumulates and biomagnifies up food chains, thinning the eggshells of birds of prey.
  13. Question 13

    Explain how double hulls reduce oil spills. [1 mark]

    Answer:
    If the outer hull is damaged the inner hull contains the oil.
  14. Question 14

    Describe critical pathway analysis. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    It identifies the route a pollutant is most likely to take, so monitoring is focused where it will concentrate.
  15. Question 15

    State how acid mine drainage is controlled. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Collect the drainage water and neutralise it with lime or crushed limestone.
  16. Question 16

    Define the term ‘synergism’. [1 mark]

    Answer:
    The combined effect of two substances is greater than the sum of their separate effects.
  17. Question 17

    Define the term ‘persistence’. [1 mark]

    Answer:
    How long a pollutant remains before it breaks down.
  18. Question 18

    Distinguish between a point source and a diffuse source. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    A point source is a single location such as a chimney. A diffuse source has many small sources, such as vehicles.
  19. Question 19

    Describe how smoke smog forms. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Smoke particles and fog accumulate under a temperature inversion.
  20. Question 20

    Describe how an electrostatic precipitator works. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Charged wires attract smoke particles from flue gas, which stick and are collected.
  21. Question 21

    Explain how photochemical smog forms. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    UV light drives reactions between NOx, hydrocarbons and ozone, producing PANs that concentrate under a temperature inversion.
  22. Question 22

    Explain why carbon monoxide is harmful. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    It binds to haemoglobin, reducing oxygen carriage.
  23. Question 23

    Explain how thermal pollution harms aquatic life. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Warm water holds less dissolved oxygen, so deoxygenation kills organisms.
  24. Question 24

    State how cooling towers reduce thermal pollution. [1 mark]

    Answer:
    Heat is transferred to the atmosphere before water is discharged.
  25. Question 25

    Describe how oil spills affect birds. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Oil causes toxicity, asphyxiation and loss of insulation. Birds spend longer preening, so feed their young less.
  26. Question 26

    Describe two oil spill clean-up methods. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Booms contain oil, skimmers collect it, dispersants break it up, and bioremediation uses bacteria.
  27. Question 27

    Explain why methyl mercury is more harmful than elemental mercury. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    It is absorbed strongly and crosses the blood-brain barrier, while liquid elemental mercury is hardly absorbed through the gut.
  28. Question 28

    Evaluate landfill for solid waste. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Low cost, but causes methane and leachate pollution, loses resources and uses land.
  29. Question 29

    Evaluate incineration for solid waste. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Reduces volume and can generate energy, but loses resources, may release dioxins below 1000 °C and can discourage recycling.
  30. Question 30

    State the units used for radioactivity. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Becquerel for activity, gray for absorbed dose, sievert for effective dose.
  31. Question 31

    Define the term ‘pollutant’. [1 mark]

    Answer:
    A substance, or form of energy, in the environment at a concentration that causes harm to living organisms or the environment.
  32. Question 32

    Define the term ‘mobility’ in relation to a pollutant. [1 mark]

    Answer:
    The ability of a substance to move and disperse in air, water or living organisms.
  33. Question 33

    Define the term ‘liposolubility’. [1 mark]

    Answer:
    The ability of a substance to dissolve in lipids (fats), so it can be stored in fatty tissues and cell membranes.
  34. Question 34

    Explain how acid deposition harms freshwater lakes. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Lower pH damages eggs, gills and organisms with exposed membranes (1); acid mobilises toxic aluminium ions from soil which poison fish (1); loss of species breaks food chains, so biodiversity falls (1).
  35. Question 35

    Explain how the health effects of ground-level ozone arise. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Ozone is a strong oxidising agent that irritates and damages lung tissue (1); causes breathing difficulty and aggravates asthma and respiratory disease (1).
  36. Question 36

    Describe the health effects of particulates such as PM10. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Tiny particles are inhaled deep into the lungs (1); cause or aggravate asthma, bronchitis and heart disease (1).
  37. Question 37

    Explain why municipal waste incinerators must burn at high temperature. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Temperatures above 1000°C are needed to prevent the formation of dioxins (1); dioxins are persistent, toxic and carcinogenic (1).
  38. Question 38

    Describe the features of a well-managed landfill site. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Any three: triple polymer liner; leachate collection and treatment; methane collection (used as fuel); no toxic waste accepted; daily soil cover; waterproof cap when completed; fences against litter.
  39. Question 39

    Describe how high-level radioactive waste is stored. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Dried powdered waste is mixed with molten glass (vitrification) (1); sealed in stainless steel containers (1); stored in concrete blocks with cooling air channels to absorb radiation and remove heat (1).
  40. Question 40

    Explain how the inverse square law is used to reduce radiation exposure. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Radiation intensity falls with the square of the distance from the source (1); doubling distance reduces exposure to a quarter, so remote handling equipment is used (1).
  41. Question 41

    Distinguish between exposure and contamination. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Exposure is the absorption of radiation (1); contamination is physically carrying the source of radiation (so exposure also occurs) (1).
  42. Question 42

    Explain why alpha radiation is most dangerous if ingested. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Alpha particles are strongly ionising with a high RBE (about 20) (1); they cannot penetrate skin but if inside the body all their energy is absorbed in a small volume of tissue (1); causing intense local damage to cells and DNA (1).
  43. Question 43

    Explain why isotopes with medium half-lives pose the greatest radiation risk. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Emission rate is high enough to be harmful (1); half-life is too long to avoid the source until it is safe, unlike short half-lives, whereas long half-lives emit slowly (1).
  44. Question 44

    Describe the effects of noise on humans. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Hearing damage to hair cells in the cochlea (1); stress, raised blood pressure and heart disease through increased adrenalin (1); irritability, sleep loss and difficulty concentrating (1).
  45. Question 45

    State two ways of reducing aircraft noise. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Any two: night flight restrictions; flight paths avoiding urban areas; quieter engines with chevron nozzles; steep climb after take-off; constant 3° descent angle; acoustic insulation of nearby homes; fines for excess noise.
  46. Question 46

    Describe bioremediation of an oil spill. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Microorganisms (bacteria) are encouraged to break down hydrocarbons (1); nutrients such as nitrogen and phosphorus may be added to speed up their growth (1).
  47. Question 47

    Compare organochlorine and organophosphate insecticides. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Organochlorines (eg DDT): highly persistent, liposoluble, bioaccumulate and biomagnify, low toxicity to mammals (2); organophosphates (eg malathion): low persistence and bioaccumulation but high toxicity to mammals (1).
  48. Question 48

    Describe how nitrate pollution from farming can be controlled. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Use of low-solubility fertilisers such as urea (1); nitrate vulnerable zones: no fertiliser in winter, reduced applications, slurry stored in tanks (1); cover crops absorb nitrates over winter (1).
  49. Question 49

    Explain how low-sulfur fuels and flue gas desulfurisation reduce acid rain. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Low-sulfur fuels release less sulfur dioxide when burned (1); FGD removes SO2 from flue gases using lime/limestone to form calcium sulfate/gypsum (1).
  50. Question 50

    Distinguish between acute and chronic effects of radiation. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Acute effects occur rapidly, usually from a high dose (1); chronic effects develop slowly, usually from low doses over a long time, eg cancer (1).

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