AQA A-level Environmental Science · 3.3

Energy resources

50 exam-style questions with answers for 3.3 Energy resources in AQA A-level Environmental Science (spec 7447). Practise with flashcards, a topic quiz, a random quiz across the course, 5 crosswords, Five Degrees, Associations, or read every question and answer below. Not official AQA material.

All 50 questions and answers

  1. Question 1

    Explain how pumped-storage HEP meets fluctuating demand. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Surplus electricity pumps water to an upper reservoir, storing gravitational potential energy (peak shaving). Water is released through turbines at peak demand, giving a rapid response.
  2. Question 2

    Describe how fertile fuels are used in nuclear fission. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Uranium-238 or thorium-232 is bombarded with neutrons and becomes fissile plutonium-239 or uranium-233. Fission releases heat, which makes steam to turn turbines.
  3. Question 3

    State two features of energy resources that affect how they are used. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Any two from: intermittency, energy density, abundance, locational constraints, need for energy conversions.
  4. Question 4

    Define the term ‘energy density’. [1 mark]

    Answer:
    The energy per unit mass or volume of a fuel or resource.
  5. Question 5

    Explain why low head turbines suit rural areas. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    They work with a small drop or low flow, need no large dam or flooding, and have less infrastructure and lower environmental impact.
  6. Question 6

    Describe how carbon capture and storage (CCS) works. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    CO2 is removed from exhaust gases (for example by amine scrubbing), compressed and stored underground in depleted gas fields or aquifers.
  7. Question 7

    Explain how hydraulic fracturing extracts shale gas. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    High-pressure water and sand is pumped into shale, cracking it. The sand keeps the cracks open so gas flows to the well.
  8. Question 8

    State two advantages of Combined Heat and Power (CHP). [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Waste heat is used for heating buildings or greenhouses, so overall efficiency is higher and less fuel is needed.
  9. Question 9

    Explain why double glazing reduces heat loss. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    The air gap has low thermal conductivity and, if narrow enough, no convection.
  10. Question 10

    Describe how regenerative braking (KERS) saves energy. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Kinetic energy drives a generator when braking, charging a battery so the energy can be reused.
  11. Question 11

    Explain why intermittent resources need energy storage. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Supply may not match demand, so surplus is stored (peak shaving) and used when demand exceeds supply.
  12. Question 12

    State two ways a wind farm may harm wildlife. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Bird and bat collisions, and noise or vibration affecting marine mammals offshore.
  13. Question 13

    Define the term ‘embodied energy’. [1 mark]

    Answer:
    The total energy used to manufacture and install equipment.
  14. Question 14

    Explain how multi-junction photovoltaic cells increase efficiency. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Different layers absorb different wavelengths of light, so more energy is absorbed.
  15. Question 15

    State two causes of fluctuations in energy demand. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Any two from: weather, season, weekday or weekend, night and day, TV pick-up.
  16. Question 16

    Define the term ‘renewable resource’. [1 mark]

    Answer:
    A resource that is rapidly reformed, so use does not affect its availability.
  17. Question 17

    State two features of fossil fuels that make them widely used. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    High energy density, easy to store, and available on demand.
  18. Question 18

    Explain why fuel cells are useful. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Hydrogen is oxidised electrochemically to make electricity and water with low emissions, and hydrogen can store surplus energy.
  19. Question 19

    Describe how a tidal barrage generates electricity. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Incoming and outgoing tides are channelled through turbines in the barrage.
  20. Question 20

    State two ecological impacts of tidal barrages. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    They change tidal range, turbidity and flow, and block migration of fish and mammals.
  21. Question 21

    Explain the advantage of in-stream tidal turbines. [1 mark]

    Answer:
    There is no barrier to water flow, so ecological impact is lower.
  22. Question 22

    Describe how thorium reactors work. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Thorium-232 is bombarded with neutrons to produce fissile uranium-233, with less long-lived waste.
  23. Question 23

    Describe nuclear fusion. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Hydrogen isotopes fuse to release energy, in toroidal reactors or by laser fusion, with no high-level waste.
  24. Question 24

    Explain how directional drilling reduces environmental impact. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Many wells reach reserves from one platform, including under cities or sensitive areas.
  25. Question 25

    Describe how tertiary oil recovery works. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Oil viscosity is reduced using steam, solvents or bacteria, so it flows more easily.
  26. Question 26

    State two methods of energy storage. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Any two from: pumped-storage HEP, batteries, fuel cells, compressed gas, flywheels, thermal storage.
  27. Question 27

    Explain vehicle-to-grid (V2G) systems. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Parked electric vehicles supply electricity to the grid during shortages and recharge when there is a surplus.
  28. Question 28

    Describe how heat exchangers conserve energy. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    They transfer heat from outgoing warm air or water to incoming flows.
  29. Question 29

    Explain why a low surface area to volume ratio conserves energy in buildings. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Less surface area means less heat is lost.
  30. Question 30

    State how wind power changes if wind velocity doubles. [1 mark]

    Answer:
    Available power increases eight-fold because it is proportional to velocity cubed.
  31. Question 31

    Explain how coal, oil and natural gas formed. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Dead organic matter (plants for coal; plankton for oil and gas) was buried (1); heat and pressure over millions of years converted the carbon compounds (1); in anaerobic conditions that prevented complete decomposition (1).
  32. Question 32

    Explain why burning coal causes more pollution than burning natural gas. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Coal has a higher carbon content so releases more CO2 per unit of energy (1); coal contains sulfur and impurities, so releases more SO2, particulates and ash (1).
  33. Question 33

    Describe coal gasification. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Coal is partially oxidised with limited oxygen and steam at high temperature (1); produces syngas (carbon monoxide and hydrogen) which burns more cleanly than coal (1).
  34. Question 34

    Describe coal liquefaction. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Coal is converted to liquid hydrocarbons by reacting with hydrogen under high temperature and pressure (1); the liquid fuel can substitute for oil products such as petrol and diesel (1).
  35. Question 35

    Describe methane hydrates and one concern about extracting them. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Methane trapped in ice-like crystals at low temperature and high pressure in ocean sediments and permafrost (1); extraction may release methane, a powerful greenhouse gas, or destabilise the seabed (1).
  36. Question 36

    Describe how control rods and a moderator operate in a nuclear reactor. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Control rods (boron or cadmium) absorb neutrons to slow or stop the chain reaction (1); moderator (water or graphite) slows neutrons (1) so they are more likely to cause fission of uranium-235 (1).
  37. Question 37

    Explain how a solar photovoltaic cell generates electricity. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Photons of light strike a semiconductor, usually silicon, and release electrons (1); the electrons are driven through a circuit as a direct current (1).
  38. Question 38

    State two disadvantages of solar photovoltaic power. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Any two: intermittent (no output at night/cloud); large land area needed; high manufacturing energy and cost; low efficiency; pollution during panel manufacture and disposal.
  39. Question 39

    Describe how geothermal energy is used to generate electricity. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Water is pumped down to hot rocks and heated to produce steam (1); the steam drives turbines connected to generators (1).
  40. Question 40

    Explain why biomass is described as carbon neutral and why that may not be fully true. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Carbon dioxide released on burning is balanced by the CO2 absorbed during growth (1); not fully true because energy is used in growing, harvesting and transporting, and land clearance releases stored carbon (1).
  41. Question 41

    Give an advantage and a disadvantage of biofuels made from crops. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Advantage: renewable and approximately carbon neutral (1); disadvantage: uses agricultural land that could grow food, may cause deforestation and raise food prices (1).
  42. Question 42

    Explain how a hydroelectric dam generates electricity and one environmental impact. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Water stored behind the dam is released through turbines, converting gravitational potential energy to kinetic energy and then electricity (2); impact: flooding of habitats, altered river flow, and sediment trapped behind the dam (1).
  43. Question 43

    Describe how an oscillating water column wave generator works. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Waves force water up and down inside a chamber, compressing and expanding the air above (1); the moving air drives a turbine and generator (1).
  44. Question 44

    Explain why thermal power stations are limited in efficiency. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Much of the energy from the fuel is lost as waste heat at each stage (1); typical efficiency is only about 35–40%, so energy is lost in cooling water or cooling towers (1).
  45. Question 45

    Describe how district heating works. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Heat (eg waste heat from power stations or incinerators) is used to heat water (1); the hot water is piped to homes and buildings, reducing the need for individual boilers (1).
  46. Question 46

    State two ways industry can conserve energy. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Any two: recovering and reusing waste heat; insulating furnaces and pipes; using energy-efficient motors and lighting; Combined Heat and Power; optimising processes and recycling materials.
  47. Question 47

    Explain how smart meters help to conserve energy. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Show real-time energy use and cost to consumers, encouraging behaviour change (1); allow time-of-use tariffs so demand shifts away from peak periods (1).
  48. Question 48

    State two ways energy use in transport can be reduced. [2 marks]

    Answer:
    Any two: more public transport/walking/cycling; lighter, more aerodynamic vehicles; more efficient engines/hybrid and electric vehicles; regenerative braking; car sharing; reduced speed limits.
  49. Question 49

    State two advantages and one disadvantage of wind power. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Advantages: renewable, no CO2 during operation, low running costs (2); disadvantage: intermittent, visual and noise impact and wildlife collisions (1).
  50. Question 50

    Explain why nuclear power produces little carbon dioxide yet remains controversial. [3 marks]

    Answer:
    Fission releases no CO2 during operation (1); concerns include radioactive waste storage for thousands of years (1); accident risk, decommissioning costs and links to weapons (1).

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